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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two statements about IKEv2 are true if an administrator decides to implement IKEv2 in the VPN topology? (Choose two.)
A. It includes stronger Diffie-Hellman (DH) groups, such as Elliptic Curve (ECP) groups.
B. It supports interoperability with devices using IKEv1.
C. It exchanges a minimum of two messages to establish a secure tunnel.
D. It supports the extensible authentication protocol (EAP).
Answer: AD
Explanation:
IKEv2 (Internet Key Exchange version 2) is an improvement over IKEv1, offering enhanced security, efficiency, and flexibility in VPN configurations.
– It includes stronger Diffie-Hellman (DH) groups, such as Elliptic Curve (ECP) groups. IKEv2 supports stronger cryptographic algorithms, including Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH) groups such as ECP256 and ECP384, providing improved security compared to IKEv1.
– It supports the extensible authentication protocol (EAP). IKEv2 natively supports EAP authentication, which allows integration with external authentication mechanisms such as RADIUS, certificates, and smart cards. This is particularly useful for remote access VPNs where user authentication must be flexible and secure.
NEW QUESTION 2
An administrator must enable direct communication between multiple spokes in a company’s network. Each spoke has more than one internet connection. The requirement is for the spokes to connect directly without passing through the hub, and for the links to automatically switch to the best available connection. How can this automatic detection and optimal link utilization between spokes be achieved?
A. Set up OSPF routing over static VPN tunnels between spokes.
B. Utilize ADVPN 2.0 to facilitate dynamic direct tunnels and automatic link optimization.
C. Establish static VPN tunnels between spokes with predefined backup routes.
D. Implement SD-WAN policies at the hub to manage spoke link quality.
Answer: B
Explanation:
ADVPN (Auto-Discovery VPN) 2.0 is the optimal solution for enabling direct spoke-to-spoke communication without passing through the hub, while also allowing automatic link selection based on quality metrics.
– Dynamic Direct Tunnels:
1. ADVPN 2.0 allows spokes to establish direct IPsec tunnels dynamically based on traffic patterns, reducing latency and improving performance.
2. Unlike static VPNs, spokes do not need to pre-configure tunnels for each other.
– Automatic Link Optimization:
1. ADVPN 2.0 monitors the quality of multiple internet connections on each spoke.
2. It automatically switches to the best available connection when the primary link degrades or fails.
3. This is achieved by dynamically adjusting BGP-based routing or leveraging SD-WAN integration.
NEW QUESTION 3
What does the command set forward-domain <domain_ID> in a transparent VDOM interface do?
A. It configures the interface to prioritize traffic based on the domain ID, enhancing quality of service for specified VLANs.
B. It isolates traffic within a specific VLAN by assigning a broadcast domain to an interface based on the VLAN ID.
C. It restricts the interface to managing traffic only from the specified VLAN, effectively segregating network traffic.
D. It assigns a unique domain ID to the interface, allowing it to operate across multiple VLANs within the same VDOM.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a transparent mode Virtual Domain (VDOM) configuration, FortiGate operates as a Layer 2 bridge rather than performing Layer 3 routing. The set forward-domain <domain_ID> command is used to control how traffic is forwarded between interfaces within the same transparent VDOM. A forward-domain acts as a broadcast domain, meaning only interfaces with the same forward- domain ID can exchange traffic. This setting is commonly used to separate different VLANs or network segments within the transparent VDOM while still allowing FortiGate to apply security policies.
NEW QUESTION 4
A company’s users on an IPsec VPN between FortiGate A and B have experienced intermittent issues since implementing VXLAN. The administrator suspects that packets exceeding the 1500-byte default MTU are causing the problems. In which situation would adjusting the interface’s maximum MTU value help resolve issues caused by protocols that add extra headers to IP packets?
A. Adjust the MTU on interfaces only if FortiGate has the FortiGuard enterprise bundle, which allows MTU modification.
B. Adjust the MTU on interfaces in all FortiGate devices that support the latest family of Fortinet SPUs: NP7, CP9 and SP5.
C. Adjust the MTU on interfaces in controlled environments where all devices along the path allow MTU interface changes.
D. Adjust the MTU on interfaces only in wired connections like PPPoE, optic fiber, and ethernet cable.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When using IPsec VPNs and VXLAN, additional headers are added to packets, which can exceed the default 1500-byte MTU. This can lead to fragmentation issues, dropped packets, or degraded performance. To resolve this, the MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) should be adjusted only if all devices in the network path support it. Otherwise, some devices may still drop or fragment packets, leading to continued issues. Why adjusting MTU helps:
– VXLAN adds a 50-byte overhead to packets.
– IPsec adds additional encapsulation (ESP, GRE, etc.), increasing the packet size.
– If packets exceed the MTU, they may be fragmented or dropped, causing intermittent connectivity issues.
– Lowering the MTU on interfaces ensures packets stay within the supported size limit across all network devices.
NEW QUESTION 5
During the maintenance window, an administrator must sniff all the traffic going through a specific firewall policy, which is handled by NP6 interfaces. The output of the sniffer trace provides just a few packets. Why is the output of sniffer trace limited?
A. The traffic corresponding to the firewall policy is encrypted.
B. auto-asic-off load is set to enable in the firewall policy.
C. inspection-mode is set to proxy in the firewall policy.
D. The option npudbg is not added in the diagnose sniff packet command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FortiGate devices with NP6 (Network Processor 6) acceleration offload traffic directly to hardware, bypassing the CPU for improved performance. When auto-asic-offload is enabled in a firewall policy, most of the traffic does not reach the CPU, which means it won’t be captured by the standard sniffer trace command. Since NP6-accelerated traffic is handled entirely in hardware, only a small portion of initial packets (such as session setup packets or exceptions) might be seen in the sniffer output. To capture all packets, the administrator must disable hardware offloading using:
config firewall policy edit <policy_ID>
set auto-asic-offload disable end
Disabling ASIC offload forces traffic to be processed by the CPU, allowing the sniffer tool to capture all packets.
NEW QUESTION 6
An administrator received a FortiAnalyzer alert that a 1 ТВ disk filled up in a day. Upon investigation, they found thousands of unusual DNS log requests, such as JHCMQK.website.com, with no answers. They later discovered that DNS exfiltration was occurring through both UDP and TLS. How can the administrator prevent this data theft technique?
A. Create an inline-CASB to protect against DNS exfiltration.
B. Configure a File Filter profile to prevent DNS exfiltration.
C. Enable DNS Filter to protect against DNS exfiltration.
D. Use an IPS profile and DNS exfiltration-related signatures.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The excessive DNS log requests with random subdomains suggest a DNS exfiltration attack, where attackers encode and transmit data via DNS queries. Since this technique can use both UDP and TLS (DoH – DNS over HTTPS), a comprehensive security approach is needed. Using an IPS profile with DNS exfiltration-specific signatures allows FortiGate to:
– Detect and block abnormal DNS query patterns often used in exfiltration.
– Inspect encrypted DNS (DoH, DoT) traffic if SSL inspection is enabled.
– Identify known exfiltration domains and techniques based on FortiGuard threat intelligence.
NEW QUESTION 7
An administrator configured the FortiGate devices in an enterprise network to join the Fortinet Security Fabric. The administrator has a list of IP addresses that must be blocked by the data center firewall. This list is updated daily. How can the administrator automate a firewall policy with the daily updated list?
A. With FortiNAC.
B. With FortiAnalyzer.
C. With a Security Fabric automation.
D. With an external connector from Threat Feeds.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way to automate a firewall policy using a daily updated list of IP addresses is by using an external connector from Threat Feeds. This allows FortiGate to dynamically retrieve real-time threat intelligence from external sources and apply it directly to security policies. By configuring Threat Feeds, the administrator can:
– Automatically update firewall policies with the latest malicious IPs daily.
– Block traffic from those IPs in real-time without manual intervention.
– Integrate with FortiGuard, third-party threat intelligence sources, or custom feeds (CSV, STIX/TAXII, etc.).
NEW QUESTION 8
The IT department discovered during the last network migration that all zero phase selectors in phase 2 IPsec configurations impacted network operations. What are two valid approaches to prevent this during future migrations? (Choose two.)
A. Use routing protocols to specify allowed subnets over the tunnel.
B. Configure an IPsec-aggregate to create redundancy between each firewall peer.
C. Clearly indicate to the VPN which segments will be encrypted in the phase two selectors.
D. Configure an IP address on the IPsec interface of each firewall to establish unique peer connections and avoid impacting network operations.
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Zero phase selectors in IPsec Phase 2 mean that no specific traffic selectors (subnets) are defined, allowing any traffic to be encrypted through the VPN tunnel. This can cause unintended traffic forwarding issues and disrupt network operations. To prevent this from happening during future migrations:
– Using routing protocols ensures that only specific subnets are advertised over the tunnel. Dynamic routing (such as OSPF or BGP) helps define which networks should use the tunnel, preventing unintended traffic from being encrypted.
– Clearly defining phase 2 selectors avoids the problem of encrypting all traffic by explicitly stating the allowed source and destination subnets. This prevents the tunnel from affecting unrelated network traffic.
NEW QUESTION 9
How will configuring set tcp-mss-sender and set tcp-mss-receiver in a firewall policy affect the size and handling of TCP packets in the network?
A. The maximum segment size permitted in the firewall policy determines whether TCP packets are allowed or denied.
B. Applying commands in a firewall policy determines the largest payload a device can handle in a single TCP segment.
C. The administrator must consider the payload size of the packet and the size of the IP header to configure a correct value in the firewall policy.
D. The TCP packet modifies the packet size only if the size of the packet is less than the one the administrator configured in the firewall policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The set tcp-mss-sender and set tcp-mss-receiver commands in a firewall policy allow an administrator to adjust the Maximum Segment Size (MSS) of TCP packets. This setting controls the largest payload size that a device can handle in a single TCP segment, ensuring that packets do not exceed the allowed MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) along the network path.
– set tcp-mss-sender adjusts the MSS value for outgoing TCP traffic.
– set tcp-mss-receiver adjusts the MSS value for incoming TCP traffic.
This helps prevent issues with fragmentation and MTU mismatches, improving network performance and avoiding retransmissions.
NEW QUESTION 10
A vulnerability scan report has revealed that a user has generated traffic to the website example.com (10.10.10.10) using a weak SSL/TLS version supported by the HTTPS web server. What can the firewall administrator do to block all outdated SSL/TLS versions on any HTTPS web server to prevent possible attacks on user traffic?
A. Configure the unsupported SSL version and set the minimum allowed SSL version in the HTTPS settings of the SSL/SSH inspection profile.
B. Enable auto-detection of outdated SSL/TLS versions in the SSL/SSH inspection profile to block vulnerable websites.
C. Install the required certificate in the client’s browser or use Active Directory policies to block specific websites as defined in the SSL/SSH inspection profile.
D. Use the latest certificate, Fortinet_SSL_ECDSA256, and replace the CA certificate in the SSL/SSH inspection profile.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best way to block outdated SSL/TLS versions is to configure the SSL/SSH inspection profile to enforce a minimum SSL/TLS version and disable weak SSL versions. By setting the minimum allowed SSL version in the HTTPS settings of the SSL/SSH inspection profile, FortiGate will:
– Block any connection using outdated SSL/TLS versions (such as SSLv3, TLS 1.0, or TLS 1.1).
– Enforce secure communication using only strong SSL/TLS versions (such as TLS 1.2 or TLS 1.3).
– Protect users from man-in-the-middle (MITM) and downgrade attacks that exploit weak encryption.
NEW QUESTION 11
An administrator is setting up an ADVPN configuration and wants to ensure that peer IDs are not exposed during VPN establishment. Which protocol can the administrator use to enhance security?
A. Use IKEv2, which encrypts peer IDs and prevents exposure.
B. Opt for SSL VPN web mode because it does not use peer IDs at all.
C. Choose IKEv1 aggressive mode because it simplifies peer identification.
D. Stick with IKEv1 main mode because it offers better performance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In ADVPN (Auto-Discovery VPN) configurations, security concerns include protecting peer IDs during VPN establishment. Peer IDs are exchanged in the IKE (Internet Key Exchange) negotiation phase, and their exposure could lead to privacy risks or targeted attacks.
– IKEv2 encrypts peer IDs, making it more secure compared to IKEv1, where peer IDs can be exposed in plaintext in aggressive mode.
– IKEv2 also provides better performance and flexibility while supporting dynamic tunnel establishment in ADVPN.
NEW QUESTION 12
An administrator must minimize CPU and RAM use on a FortiGate firewall while also enabling essential security features, such as web filtering and application control for HTTPS traffic. Which SSL inspection setting helps reduce system load while also enabling security features, such as web filtering and application control for encrypted HTTPS traffic?
A. Use full SSL inspection to thoroughly inspect encrypted payloads.
B. Disable SSL inspection entirely to conserve resources.
C. Configure SSL inspection to handle HTTPS traffic efficiently.
D. Enable SSL certificate inspection mode to perform basic checks without decrypting traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To minimize CPU and RAM usage while still enforcing security features like web filtering and application control, SSL certificate inspection mode is the best choice.
– SSL certificate inspection allows FortiGate to inspect only the SSL/TLS handshake, including the Server Name Indication (SNI) and certificate details, without decrypting the full encrypted payload.
– This enables features like web filtering and application control because FortiGate can determine the destination website or application based on SNI and certificate information.
– It significantly reduces system load compared to full SSL inspection, which requires full decryption and re-encryption of traffic.
NEW QUESTION 13
An administrator must standardize the deployment of FortiGate devices across branches with consistent interface roles and policy packages using FortiManager. What is the recommended best practice for interface assignment in this scenario?
A. Enable metadata variables to use dynamic configurations in the standard interfaces of FortiManager.
B. Use the Install On feature in the policy package to automatically assign different interfaces based on the branch.
C. Create interfaces using device database scripts to use them on the same policy package of FortiGate devices.
D. Create normalized interface types per-platform to automatically recognize device layer interfaces based on the FortiGate model and interface name.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When standardizing the deployment of FortiGate devices across branches using FortiManager, the best practice is to use metadata variables. This allows for dynamic interface configuration while maintaining a single, consistent policy package for all branches.
– Metadata variables in FortiManager enable interface roles and configurations to be dynamically assigned based on the specific FortiGate device.
– This ensures scalability and consistent security policy enforcement across all branches without manually adjusting interface settings for each device.
– When a new branch FortiGate is deployed, metadata variables automatically map to the correct physical interfaces, reducing manual configuration errors.
NEW QUESTION 14
What action can be taken on a FortiGate to block traffic using IPS protocol decoders, focusing on network transmission patterns and application signatures?
A. Use the DNS filter to block application signatures and protocol decoders.
B. Use application control to limit non-URL-based software handling.
C. Enable application detection-based SD-WAN rules.
D. Configure a web filter profile in flow mode.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FortiGate’s IPS protocol decoders analyze network transmission patterns and application signatures to identify and block malicious traffic. Application Control is the feature that allows FortiGate to detect, classify, and block applications based on their behavior and signatures, even when they do not rely on traditional URLs.
– Application Control works alongside IPS protocol decoders to inspect packet payloads and enforce security policies based on recognized application behaviors.
– It enables granular control over non-URL-based applications such as P2P traffic, VoIP, messaging apps, and other non-web-based protocols that IPS can identify through protocol decoders.
– IPS and Application Control together can detect evasive or encrypted applications that might bypass traditional firewall rules.
NEW QUESTION 15
An administrator is designing an ADVPN network for a large enterprise with spokes that have varying numbers of internet links. They want to avoid a high number of routes and peer connections at the hub. Which method should be used to simplify routing and peer management?
A. Deploy a full-mesh VPN topology to eliminate hub dependency.
B. Implement static routing over IPsec interfaces for each spoke.
C. Use a dynamic routing protocol using loopback interfaces to streamline peers and routes.
D. Establish a traditional hub-and-spoke VPN topology with policy routes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When designing an ADVPN (Auto-Discovery VPN) network for a large enterprise with spokes that have varying numbers of internet links, the main challenge is to minimize the number of peer connections and routes at the hub while maintaining scalability and efficiency. Using a dynamic routing protocol (such as BGP or OSPF) with loopback interfaces helps in several ways:
– Reduces the number of peer connections at the hub by using a single loopback address per spoke instead of individual physical interfaces.
– Enables simplified route advertisement by dynamically learning and propagating routes instead of manually configuring static routes.
– Supports multiple internet links per spoke efficiently, as dynamic routing can automatically adjust to the best available path.
– Allows seamless failover if a spoke’s internet link fails, ensuring continuous connectivity.
NEW QUESTION 16
A FortiGate device with UTM profiles is reaching the resource limits, and the administrator expects the traffic in the enterprise network to increase. The administrator has received an additional FortiGate of the same model. Which two protocols should the administrator use to integrate the additional FortiGate device into this enterprise network? (Choose two.)
A. FGSP with external load balancers.
B. FGCP in active-active mode and with switches.
C. FGCP in active-passive mode and with VDOM disabled.
D. VRRP with switches.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
When adding an additional FortiGate to an enterprise network that is already reaching its resource limits, the goal is to distribute traffic efficiently and ensure high availability.
– FGSP (FortiGate Session Life Support Protocol) with external load balancers.
FGSP allows session-aware load balancing between multiple FortiGate units without requiring them to be in an HA (High Availability) cluster. With external load balancers, incoming traffic is evenly distributed across multiple FortiGate devices. This approach is useful for scaling out traffic handling capacity while ensuring that sessions remain synchronized between firewalls. FGSP is effective when stateful failover is required but without the constraints of traditional HA.
– FGCP (FortiGate Clustering Protocol) in active-active mode and with switches.
FGCP active-active mode enables multiple FortiGate devices to share traffic loads, increasing throughput and efficiency. Active-active mode is suitable for balancing UTM processing across multiple FortiGates, making it ideal when resource limits are a concern. Using switches ensures redundancy and avoids single points of failure in the network. This mode is commonly used in enterprise networks where both scalability and redundancy are required.
NEW QUESTION 17
An administrator wants to scale the IBGP sessions and optimize the routing table in an IBGP network. Which parameter should the administrator configure?
A. network-import-check
B. ibgp-enforce-multihop
C. neighbor-group
D. route-reflector-client
Answer: D
Explanation:
In an IBGP (Internal BGP) network, all routers must be fully meshed, meaning every router must establish a BGP session with every other router in the same autonomous system (AS). This does not scale well in large networks due to the exponential increase in BGP sessions. To optimize and scale IBGP, Route Reflectors (RRs) are used. A Route Reflector (RR) reduces the number of IBGP peer connections by allowing a centralized router (RR) to redistribute IBGP routes to other IBGP peers (called clients). This eliminates the need for a full mesh, significantly reducing BGP session overhead. By configuring the route-reflector-client setting on IBGP peers, an administrator can:
– Scale IBGP sessions by reducing the number of direct BGP peer connections.
– Optimize the routing table by ensuring routes are efficiently propagated within the IBGP network.
– Eliminate the need for full mesh topology, making IBGP more manageable.
NEW QUESTION 18
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